Deathisdefeated

O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?

Doesn't Hosea equate divorce with covenantal death when God divorces the 10 northern tribes of Israel?  God's covenant at Mt. Sinai with Moses and Israel is considered the marriage of God with Israel.  If divorce is the same as covenantal death, then can we consider the covenantal death of Adam as a type of divorce with God?  If so, do we see the covenants between God and Noah and God and Abraham also as a type of remarriage?  Any thoughts?

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Hi Andrew,

Check out this blog post:

God was never married to Israel in the Old Covenant

Thanks Alan for taking the time to point me to that blog post.  I enjoyed your sermon and am in the process of reading through the 61 pages of comments.  There is a lot to digest.  Doesn't Hosea 5:15-6:5 indicate that God kills (covenantally) the 10 Northern Tribes of Israel?  If that is a proper interpretation, then how does that affect the discussion, or maybe it doesn't? 

Yes Andrew, that is correct. My take on that is that God stones Israel according to the flesh at the marriage of Christ and spiritual Israel, thus fulfilling Deuteronomy 22. He fulfills the marriage to the pure bride ("come out of her my people - Rev. 19), and fulfills Deuteronomy 22 at the same time. This is part and parcel of why the unjust are raised with the just. God promised to marry Israel, and so He must fulfill that promise. So He fulfills the promise of everlasting love for her while at the same time, fulfilling the promise of judgment. This follows both the resurrection and the Temple motifs of judgment and life. Hope that helps.

Don K. Preston is currently doing a youTube series on the eschatology of the parables of Jesus, and in this one he talks about the Matthew 22 OT source for the Wedding parable.  One of the OT references that Don uses is Jerimiah 31:32 where God says He was a husband to Israel.  Now, my question is if God says He was a husband to Israel, wouldn't that indicate that God was married to Israel and not just betrothed?  In a betrothal, wouldn't we say "husband to be" instead of "husband"?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=porI_NqJ0-c

Don is very correct, Israel was married to God during the OC cultus. Sinai was the Betrothal of the OC, Joshua 5 is the OC marriage. Jeremiah 3:8 was when God gave The House of Israel a Bill of Divorce. The House of Israel could never come back into Covenant (old). The House of Israel was sifted to the nations and became as Gentile. The House of Judah killed her Husband and the Marriage contract said that all would be judged by the court of God. The House of Judah was given her judgement in 70 AD. We must understand that Judah/Israel killed her husband. Jesus Christ was the Testator of The OC Betrothal at Sinai and marriage at Gilgal contracts. The enforcement of this marriage contract was put in force/motion at the Testators (Jesus Christs) Death on the Cross and Judgement enacted 40 years later.

The NC Betrothal of believing Sect of The Way was at Pentecost 30AD. Jacobs sons (Ephraim) (House of Israel) had the Birthright and a remnant of 'All of the House of Israel' came back into Betrothal covenant, as a new people, by a new name. The marriage of God to the Church/Assembly/ Israel (Sons of God)/ Body, was at the consummation of The Age in AD70.

type/anti-type.... Shadow/Real.... Flesh and blood image/ Spiritual reality.

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