O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?


BY: Michael J. Sullivan

Here are my propositions on the content of these three passages and what ties them together:

1) Adam perished outside of God's presence in the garden and was banished eastward to perish in the dust of the land of Eden where he was originally formed, at the age of 930 years old.

2) Moses alludes to Adam just before making the 1,000 years statement (Ps. 90:3-4) as he meditates on his similar situation of an entire rebellious generation perishing outside of the Promised Land due their unfaithfulness in breaking God's law or commandment. Observations and meditations of Psalm 90:

a) A thousand years is being contrasted with Adam's age - man is temporal/sinful vs. God is eternal/holy. Futurists and Preterists debate if the long ages of Genesis 5 are literal or symbolic. That isn’t the point however. The point is that God’s day of 1,ooo is being contrasted as being “eternal” or from “everlasting to everlasting” compared to man’s best and most long lived days (Gen. 5). Thus…

b) A thousands years becomes a symbolic number representing fullness, completeness, and I believe and is my proposition, represents eternal life.

c) This Psalm contains a passage in which some Jews understood the Messiah’s interim reign (the millennium) between “this age” (the age of Mosaic Law) and the “age about to come” (the New Covenant Messianic age) to be 40 years or a new exodus Psalm 90:15-17. This is the literal time frame of the millennium before Christ returned in His “this generation” (Mt. 24:34/Deut. 32:5, 20).

d) Psalm 90 contains both the figurative or symbolic number for the millennium 1,000 and the literal “generation” or “make us glad…according to the years we have seen evil.”

3) 2 Peter 3:8:

a) In context, God’s “longsuffering” with that generation was salvation being accomplished for the elect.

b) Because they were in the millennium period, and the Prophet’s prediction of the Day of the Lord and the arrival of the New Creation was “at hand” (cf. 1 Peter 1:4-12, 4:5-7, 17), the mockers would be swept away and judged to be outside of God’s presence if they did not “remember” that God keeps His Word as He had in previous judgments such as the flood. In spite of what the mockers were teaching, Jesus was coming in their generation even if this seemed like a long time for them under such intense persecutions.

c) Peter’s themes and parallel material of inheriting salvation/the New Creation, the 1,000 years, and the saving of the soul at Christ’s Second Coming with that of Revelation 20 should not go unnoticed by the exegete.

4) Revelation 20:

a) There are two phases of one resurrection/harvest being taught here just as in John4-6 (John being the same author). The firstfruits are primarily Jewish Chritians being raised at Pentecost, and the rest of the dead will be raised at "the end" - of which the parousia ushers in (1 Cor. 15/Mt. 24-25). That "hour" and "day" was coming and had arrived!

b) The Church was in the process of reigning and being raised for a 1,000 years before Christ’s imminent coming in AD 70 which would bring an end to the Old Covenant age and usher in the harvest/judgment of the dead (Mt. 3, 13, 23-25/1Thess. 4/1Cor. 15/Rev.6, 7, 11, 14).

c) In Christ, the Church was in the process of receiving eternal life, which the number 1,000 symbolically represents (along with fullness and completeness). Christ as the Last Adam was bringing the Church back into the Garden/Presence of God for a 1,000 years whereas Adam could only bring man to the dust of the earth – in separation outside of God’s presence. G.K. Beale in discussing the 1,000 years millennium of Revelation 20 discusses that some Jews considered the transition period or millennium to be 40 years while others 1,000. The number 1,000 was said to be a reference to Adam’s almost attained age. He also discusses that some Jews like some Protestants believed that the 1,000 years was literal and others figurative (G.K. Beale, THE NEW INTERNATIONAL GREEK TESTAMENT COMMENTARY NIGTC The Book of Revelation, (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1999), 1018-1020).

This is my understanding of the 1,000 years and “this generation” from Deut. 32:5, 20/Psalm 90:3-4, 15--to Matthew 24-25--2 Peter 3--Revelation 20. The “this generation” is the literal new exodus time frame for the millennium, and the 1,000 years is a symbolic anti-type to the long ages of the patriarchs and Adam in particular (see also Isaiah 65:20, 22).

The Church now possesses “eternal life” and unlike Adam, “never dies” outside of God’s presences. We will always be face to face with God in His presence which is what His parousia (presence) is all about – Revelation 21-22:4, 10-12, 20/1Corinthians 13:10-12---chapter 15. Selah.

The "House Divided" of Amillennialism and Postmillennial Partial Preterism forms my position:

1) AMILLENNIALISM: Claims that there is only one Second Coming and judgment of the dead mentioned in the Book of Revelation and that Revelation 20 is the same scene as that depicted in chapters 6, 7, 11, 14 etc. (see G.K. Beale, Simon Kistemaker, etc…). These men also see the time texts (although they spiritualize them away) at the beginning of the prophecy and at the end, functioning as "book ends" to describe the fulfillment of the entire prophecy (not "some" or "most" of it [per partial preterism], but ALL of it [which would include the millennium/judgment/resurrection/second coming],

"But 1:3 and 22:10 are like bookends enclosing the whole prophecy of Revelation. The fulfillment of everything, not just part, is near." (Vern S. Poythress, THE RETURNING KING A GUIDE TO THE BOOK OF REVELATION, (Philipsburg, NJ: P&R Publishing, 2000), 34).

These men understand that the transition period to the wheat and the tares and the end of the age in Matthew 13:40-43 is the same harvest/judgment/resurrection of Revelation 20.

2) POSTMILLENNIAL PARTIAL PRETERISM: Claims that the imminent time texts in Revelation 1:1, 3:11, 10:6-7, 22:6-7, 10-12, 20, describe Christ's coming in the judgment and the raising of the dead in AD 70, and that this prophecy (like Matthew 24), cannot be double fulfilled (Gary DeMar, Kenneth Gentry, James Jordan). These men also understand that the transition period to the parable of wheat and the tares and the end of the age in Matthew 13:40-43 (and the end of the age in Matthew 24) is the same harvest/judgment/resurrection as that of Revelation 20. However, Peter Leithart takes the end of the age in Matthew 13:40-43 as having been fulfilled at the end of the Old Covenant age in AD 70, and DeMar takes the end of the age in Matthew 24 as fulfilled in AD 70 as well.


My position as outlined above, builds upon the other two common sense “orthodox” positions, and yet is much more "orthodox" (straighter) and more exegetically consistent than the above "House Divided" approach to the book of Revelation and to NT eschatology in general. Christ’s one and final second coming event closes the 1,000 years millennial period which is a description of the harvest/resurrection/judgment that closed the Old Covenant age of Matthew 13 and 24. The Book of Revelation describes one second coming and judgment/resurrection/harvest of the dead throughout with a recapitulation structure. The imminent time texts at the beginning and the end of the prophecy, serve as “book ends” informing us that the fulfillment of the entire prophecy (including the end of the 1,000 years period/the judgment/resurrection) would be fulfilled “shortly” - Selah.

In Christ,
Mike Sullivan

Views: 44

Comment by Norm on March 8, 2009 at 11:43pm

Your article reminded me of Tim and Jeff’s section in BCS called “The Millennial Life-Span” page 315-317.

BCS quote … “There is another place in Scripture which records long life-spans, but before we examine that text we should point out that no life-spans in Genesis ever reached 1000 years. Commentators have noted that fact in various ways, but all of the patriarchs “died” before reaching the symbolic 1000-year mark. That is important to keep in mind as we go to another place in the Bible which references an apocalyptic life-span.
Revelation uses a 1000-year period to represent the perfect fulfillment of the long life-spans introduced in Genesis. For what many do not consider is that the millennium in Revelation 20 is a symbolic life-span of the redeemed”

In my opinion both of you have zeroed in on a better understood but almost lost Jewish idiom from over 2000 years ago that most moderns fail to grasp. In comparing the BCS quote above and yours below notice the similarity below your excerpt with the ancient Jewish book of Jubilees discussion about this very subject of Adam and 1000 years and the lack of attaining it.

Your quote … “c) In Christ, the Church was in the process of receiving eternal life, which the number 1,000 symbolically represents (along with fullness and completeness). Christ as the Last Adam was bringing the Church back into the Garden/Presence of God for a 1,000 years whereas Adam could only bring man to the dust of the earth – in separation outside of God’s presence.”

Jubilees 4:29-30…. Adam died, … he was the first to be buried in the earth. And he lacked seventy years of one thousand years; for one thousand years are as one day in the testimony of the heavens and therefore was it written concerning the tree of knowledge: 'On the day that ye eat thereof ye shall die.' For this reason he did not complete the years of this day; for he died during it.

It is obvious from this above quote that both you and BCS have the proper Jewish interpretation. What is significant is the writer clearly says that Adam did not reach the completion of that 1000 year Eternal Day and in fact that he died during that Day. I find your mentioning also that Adam perished in the dust of the land appears to match again the Jubilees statement that “he was the first to be buried in the earth” which IMO is presenting essentially your same idea through a Hebrew story form.

Your quote … “1) Adam perished outside of God's presence in the garden and was banished eastward to perish in the dust of the land of Eden where he was originally formed, at the age of 930 years old.”

Banishing eastward is also indicative of the banishment of Cain “East of Eden” when he was removed in anguish from the Presence of the Lord (Gen 4:13). Cain’s banishment (Gen 4:12) though was more severe than Adam’s original one (Gen 3:17-18) as he could not produce anything from the ground, even Adam’s meager “thorns and thistles” which means he was essentially relegated back to Gentile status outside the Covenant and God’s providential relationship. Cain therefore is the picture of Satan’s seed (1Jn 3:12) and of the murderous/rebellious Jews who stoned Stephen to death (Acts 7:58) and at the judgment were removed with gnashing of teeth (Matt 8:12) like Cain outside the Presence of God (2Th 1:9). This is interesting in Jubilees because immediately after Adams death we see in the next verse after Adam died that Cain also died in his house from the stones of that building.

Jub 4:31 At the close of this jubilee Cain was killed after him in the same year; for his house fell upon him and he died in the midst of his house, and he was killed by its stones; for with a stone he had killed Abel, and by a stone was he killed in righteous judgment.

This is all so very interesting in that Paul is essentially saying that Adam symbolically as the old husband was about to die (Rom 7:3) and then the rebellious Jews were to be relegated to the judgment of the second death at the destruction of the Temple where its stones would come down upon those guilty Jews in fiery destruction (Rev 20:15). One must also realize that not all rebellious Jews died in AD70 but those who escaped the physical fiery lake of fire were still relegated to permanent “death” status outside the New City gates. (Rev 22:14-15)

Rom 7:3 ESV … But if her husband dies, she is free from that law, and if she marries another man she is not an adulteress.

Hosea 2:16 "In that day," declares the LORD, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me 'my master.

1Co 15:49 ESV Just as we have borne the image of the man of dust, we shall also bear the image of the man of heaven.

Finally it become clear that the early Christians also understood this concept in the manner you and BCS have demonstrated. From one of the earliest Christian writings dated circa AD70 called the “Epistle of Barnabas” the author goes about explaining the meaning of this very same phrase to his readers. Take a look.

Barnabas 15
3 He speaks of the Sabbath at the beginning of the Creation, "And God made in six days the works of his hands and on the seventh day he made an end, and rested in it and sanctified it."

4 Notice, children, what is the meaning of "He made an end in six days"? He means this: that the Lord will make an end of everything in six thousand years, for a day with him means a thousand years. And he himself is my witness when he says, "Lo, the day of the Lord shall be as a thousand years." So then, children, in six days, that is in six thousand years, everything will be completed.

5 "And he rested on the seventh day." This means, when his Son comes he will destroy the time of the wicked one, and will judge the godless, and will change the sun and the moon and the stars, and then he will truly rest on the seventh day.

Now notice Heb 4:4,9.

Heb 4:4 ESV
(4) For he has somewhere spoken of the seventh day in this way: "And God rested on the seventh day from all his works." …. 9 So then, there remains a Sabbath rest for the people of God,

Many moderns when they read Barnabas 15 think that he believes in some ancient literal 1000 years and then the end of the world will come. They simply do not understand the pervasive symbolic understanding of the “Day as 1000 years” by the ancient Jews and early Christians. Notice that the Barnabas author indeed has it his purpose to explain it to his audience probably who were mostly Gentiles. Read below his introductory purpose for this letter.

Bar 1: 5 I have therefore reckoned that, if I make it my care in your behalf to communicate somewhat of that which I received, it shall bring me the reward of having ministered to such spirits, and I hasten to send you a short letter in order that your knowledge may be perfected along with your faith.

Barnabas is reflecting the same format of the Seventh Day Sabbath rest as the Hebrew writer has and he is defining that the 1000 years are coming to an end. This is made quite clear and is pervasive throughout the context of Barnabas. Moderns simply jump to our default Hellenized reading conclusion and think that the 1000 years must be literal to those audiences as well. As you and BCS have demonstrated there was a better Jewish understanding to be recognized. Barnabas had in mind the same picture of the 1000 years as Peter and John did in their writings that you reference.

I just wanted to supplement your article by demonstrating the ancient pervasiveness of the rendering that you put forth in this article that is found in other writings. In fact Augustine and other early church fathers probably derived some of their six day as Ages belief from these kinds of ancient literature discussing such matters. Unfortunately Augustine thought he was still in the sixth day/age like the typical futurist of today.

Comment by Mike Sullivan on March 9, 2009 at 1:51am
Hi Norm,

The cool thing about this is that I did an article many years ago and put it on Todd D's site (preteristarchive) entitled: "What about "one day with the Lord is as a thousand years..." 2 Peter 3:8"? In that article I made this connection with the thousand years of 2 Peter 3 with Adam and the "Day of the Lord" in the Garden. It was sparked by something I had read of James Jordan in his book "Through New Eyes" many years back. Then years later I met Tim and he mentioned an article of a friend of his, who made some parallels between the thousands years of 2 Peter 3 with Revelation 20. I don't know why I didn't see the obvious parallels, but I then began to carry my same thoughts into Revelation 20 and when I read Beale - it confirmed what I was seeing! I began presenting it on Dave's preteristcosmos list - what a few years or more ago? The development that Tim brought to my thinking on this was if the ages are to be taken literally or not. If Adam lived to be a literal 930 years, then I would understand the 1,000 years of God's Day to be a symbolic figurative anti-type to Adam's literal 930 years. If Adam's age of 930 is symbolic (as Terry interprets some or all of them?), then it is a move from a symbolic 930 years of not attaining the 1,ooo year mark, to a 1,000 years of symbolism for God's eternal day "from everlasting to everlasting." But no matter how you look at it, a reference to Adam is in the context (Ps. 90:3-4) as many commentators will point out. Another important text that I develop elsewhere is Ecl. 6:6 :).

The only other transitional or millennial number the Rabbis gave for the days of Messiah that interested me other than 40 was 70. I just can't shake that the literal years from Christ's birth as the New Creation (Lk. 1:35/Gen. 1:2) to AD 70 covers roughly 70 years. Like 40 and the new exodus theme, 70 is also a very significant number in Scripture:

1) From porch to MHP was 70 cubits the High Priest would travel once a year (atonement motif).

2) After 70 years of captivity under Ezra and Neh., Israel came out of her "graves" back into the land (resurrection motif).

3) Adam 930 + 70 (birth to parousia) = 1,000 (reception of etneral life=God's Day) (Christ picks up where Adam left off or accomplishes what he couldn't motif).

4) Christ is the new Cyrus/Ezra/Neh. that calls His people to "come out of her (OC Jerusalem/Babylon=captivity/bondage) My people." Christ was Israel's and our HP who left heaven (the MHP) and came to earth for 70 years before being a trail-blazer and bringing the Church into the MHP at His parousia by AD 70 (Heb. 8-10 or as you point out the "rest" motif Heb. 3-4, 10:25 "another day" "day" "approaching day"). Christ is the Last Adam who in roughly 70 years, brought us from the dust (in Adam outside of God's presence 930) to the 1,000 year mark of "eternal life."

I think there MAY be some significance to that. I will just throw the # 70 out there (Christ's birth to parousia) as speculation but I believe personally that it may address the recapitulation of the 70 Babylonian years of captivity motif (resurrection in the land vs. in Christ) and POSSIBLY completing Adam's years motif. I shared this 70 years concept with Ed S. and Don P. years ago and also through it out for the pretcosmos list to think about. There may or may not be something there.

But what do I know I wait tables and coach B-ball for a living :)

Thought I would make some comments on your comments, while at the same time give a little "history" on how I came to this position and God's providential hand (I believe) being in it with Beale confirming and then Tim making me think some more on the age of Adam - literal or symbolic.

In Christ,
Comment by Norm on March 9, 2009 at 12:53pm

I do believe you are on to something with the AD70 and Adam’s 930 years equating to the 1000 year eternal significance. I had recognized the same principle and it was triggered by the quote of Adam and Cain’s death in Jubilees. Jubilees say that Adam lacked 70 years of the perfect 1000 year Day. When one understands the #70 significance in scripture it begins to stick out like a sore thumb with the AD70 consummation date. Like you I cannot verify that completely through scripture but it does seem to fit very significantly and may be indeed a great everlasting sign of the power of God to establish and rule our covenant world from the old to the new.

The #70 is found in the number of bulls being offered at the feast of tabernacles (Nub 29:32) during that 7 day feast with 7 bulls offered on the seventh day and totaling 70. Some biblical students have actually established this feast of tabernacles as the time of Christ birth with Elijah (John) being born at the Passover time.

The number 70 also shows up in Genesis Chap 1-4. In Gen 1 the designation Elohim is used 35 or 5X7 times until Gen 2:4a. Then in the next section Elohim along with Jehovah is used again for a total of 35 times for a totality of the number 70. This is a Hebrew method of placing emphasis upon those two sections as separate but still united for completion sake. Gen 1 is the seven fold presentation of the overview of all Creation while Gen 2:4b until the end of Gen 4 is which serves as typology of Israel as Adam with the story of Cain and Abel being prophetic typological pictures of the last days themselves.

The number 70 may be a picture that is indelibly established with the consummation of AD70 in bringing in the Gentiles. That is perhaps one of the reason Genesis Chapter 1 uses Elohim exclusively instead of Jehovah to establish the Universality of the God of all the Nations and Israel as a picture of completeness. In Gen 2:4b we have the introduction of the story of Israel via Adam’s creation utilizing extensively Jehovah intermingled with Elohim to tie to the Nations.

Very interesting insights Mike and some that I also have been considering, especially in lieu of the fact that Christ Death ended the fleshly man Adam as master over his wife Eve and united the new spiritual husband that loved his wife instead of “Lording it over her” (Hos 2:26). Christ is the perfect Husband for Eve the mother of all the living.

Hosea 2: 14 "Therefore I am now going to allure her; I will lead her into the desert and speak tenderly to her.
15 There I will give her back her vineyards, and will make the Valley of Achor a door of hope. There she will sing as in the days of her youth, as in the day she came up out of Egypt.
16 "In that day," declares the LORD, "you will call me 'my husband'; you will no longer call me 'my master.'
17 I will remove the names of the Baals (Lords nv) from her lips; no longer will their names be invoked.
18 In that day I will make a covenant for them with the beasts of the field and the birds of the air and the creatures that move along the ground. Bow and sword and battle I will abolish from the land, so that all may lie down in safety.
19 I will betroth you to me forever; I will betroth you in righteousness and justice, in love and compassion.
20 I will betroth you in faithfulness,

Comment by Mike Sullivan on March 9, 2009 at 1:49pm
Hi Norm,
The other issue with the # 70 that I have discussed in the past, is in reference to the 70 nations of the world in Gen. 10-11 and the fact that there were 70 souls/persons brought through Jacob in Ex. 1:5 that laid the foundation for the nation of Israel. The gathering and salvation of Israel and these 70 nations brings Adam from the dust of the earth by AD 70 in Christ the heavenly man (Dan. 12:2-3/Mt. 24:30-34/1Cor. 15). The restoration/uniting/raising of these nations through the gospel heavenly tongue is described for us in Acts 2. 
As far as your comments of Romans 7. Christ was still married to the unfaithful sister (Judah) while at the same time being betrothed to the Church between AD 30-70. Judah would be stoned and burned as the unfaithful wife of a priest would be, with Christ having already entered into the first part of the marriage contract by betrothing the Church to Himself through paying the dowry price of His blood and giving the Holy Spirit as the earnest. Like Marry and Joseph, the woman during this period was refered to as a “wife.” The stoning/burning and full consummation “face to face” of the old and new covenantal wives took place between AD 66-70.
In Christ,
Mike Sullivan
Comment by Tim Martin on March 9, 2009 at 2:34pm
Hey Mike,

Thanks for posting your material here. Thought-provoking stuff, to be sure!

Tim Martin
Comment by Norm on March 9, 2009 at 5:06pm

Again I see a lot of the same things regarding Gentiles and the number 70 as you do. I really started picking up on these things better when I started reading James Jordan heavily. His Daniel commentary was a great climax to my studies of his works.

The reason I ascribe Israel entirely as the wife is I take part of my cue from Hosea where the adulterous wife bears the two children. The wife also appears from Pauline theology to be tied to the Old Master that rules over his wife which seems a picture of Adam ruling his wife Eve under the strictures of the commandment/law. I’m just not comfortable describing the wife entirely in terms only of the offspring since the Jewish Christians were still zealous for the Law (Acts 21:20) and Jesus said it would not terminate until all things were fulfilled.

It seems IMO that Paul in Romans 5-8 and 1 Cor 15 is making a strong case for only the two husbands Adam and Christ. The wife (Eve remains the same) it seems comprise the old body of Adams death who is being transformed (Phi 3:21) and cleansed at judgment (Rev 20:12) of the unfaithful from that old body into the new perfect body of Christ. Christ death as a perfect Jew in the fleshly Adam and rising as the spiritual second Adam in actuality then brings to a close Adam’s reign fully as master at AD70. The Old Adamic Master still was standing until the consummation of that judgment day. Now Paul also puts forth that the Gentiles were not married to Adam because they were to be presented as a chaste virgin (never having been married) before. (2 Cor 11:2)

Mike I’m not sure if you would read the husband and wife symbolism exactly as I do but the ending seems basically the same and I’m definitely open to new solid biblical approaches to presenting who represents the husband and wife in the most accurate model. I’m just a little puzzled though on your idea about the children (sister) considered as the married wife continuing during the 40 years. My thought is that the wife existed whole until the Judgment in which the sheep and the goats would at that time then be permanently separated leaving only the sheep.

Would like to hear more from you on this though as I may not have followed you accurately.

Comment by Mike Sullivan on March 9, 2009 at 7:18pm
Hi Norm,

I don't have a problem seeing the marriage motif beginning with Adam and Eve, with Adam/Satan/The Law being the harsh husband of Romans 7. After Adam sinned, He/Eve became the wife of Satan. But I understand Israel's marriage motif to be inclusive within the "In Adam" one. I understand Israel being a corporate Adam and recapitulating Adam's sin until Messiah comes. The marriage promises of Hosea, Jeremiah and Isaiah are addressing primarily the ten Northern tribes going into death/divorce and being sown into the land of the Assyrian captivity. The Ten Northern Tribes want Baal to be their husband through their adulteries, so God gives them over to that with the promise that God would one day betroth her again to Himself in the wilderness. The call of John the Baptist (in the wilderness) and the Apostle Paul are the two best men calling the Jews and the Gentiles to be betrothed and to the wedding.

He remains married to Judah (the other adulterous sister - after the tribes split). This is the OC harlot/wife that is divorced and judged in Revelation. She is clearly defined as OC Jerusalem where Jesus was slain (Rev. 11:8). The wife that Jesus begins betrothing/gathering to Himself in the transition period (Mt. 21-25) consists of the scattered Northern tribes and the Gentiles under the New Exodus (Isa. 10-11).

When Gentiles became proselytes and joined themselves to Jehovah under the OC they became a "new creation" and no doubt were considered to have entered into covenant/marriage with Jehovah and were treated with the same covenant dealings as Israel. The same concept of being betrothed and married to God under the NC is applied to Jew and Gentile in the NT - is my thinking. Hey, my son wants to go shoot some hoops - got to run. Hope that helps a little - sorry I didn't have time to provide the Scriptures - just in a hurry. But off the top of my head I think they are Hos.2, 8, Jer. 3, Isa. 62.

In Christ,
Comment by Norm on March 10, 2009 at 3:47pm

Thanks for the info.

What you present makes sense but I would like to know if you have any articles available that expand upon this concept more in depth. Also I presented just a few days ago some excerpts from Max King’s book “The Cross and the Parousia” in which he delves into the husband discussion in Rom 7. Look at them below and see what you think and let me know if they seem on track to you or not.


Begin King quote page 709.

The central thought of Paul’s marriage analogy (vv.1-3) is that the death of the husband is that which frees the woman from the law of her husband. The focus is on the death of the husband, not the law. “If her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man” (v.3).

It follow, therefore, that release from the law in verse 6 is the result of the death of that to which the Jews were bound by the law. It is equally clear that the death of the husband is determined by the death of Christ. That, then, which answers to the husband from a corporate perspective is the “body of flesh.” This is the thrust of Paul’s statement, “For when we were in the flesh …” (v.5). From this viewpoint the death of the body of Christ’s flesh (Col.1:22) had the meaning of the death of Israel’s corporate body according to the flesh. In that connection Paul said that, “our old man” (the corporate old man that stands in contrast to corporate new man) “is crucified with him (Christ), that the body of sin might be destroyed …” (6:6). It is the death of the corporate Man “according to the flesh” that releases Israel from the law of this Man according to the Spirit. The law of this Man is “the law of the Spirit of life” in contrast to “the law of sin and death” (Rom. 8.2).. 21379

Since Christ is a corporate figure with respect to both men, His death and resurrection are the turning points in these two corporate modes of existence – “according to the flesh” versus “according to the Spirit.” (emphasis mine)

End Quote:
Begin quote bottom of page 709 through the top of 710.

This change with respect to the two contrasting corporate modes of existence is carried out within the framework of Israel’s salvation-history, which is a fundamental truth for understanding Paul’s dying and rising motif relative to the inclusion of the Gentiles. In their Baptism into Christ they were not brought into the corporate life of Israel “according to the flesh.” But rather Paul said, “ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; THAT YE SHOULD BE MARRIED TO ANOTHER, that WE should bring forth fruit unto God” (7:4, emphasis mine). Paul’s change from “ye also’ to “we” is not without significance in his train of thought. He is saying that you Gentiles also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ, and this enables you to become married to another, not meaning the corporate body that came under the power of Christ’s death but the corporate body of His resurrection – the One New Man. The end result of this espousal of the Gentiles to another is, in Paul’s reasoning, that “WE” (his Jewish “we” in contrast to the Gentile “you” in v.4a) should bring forth fruit unto God, the Gentiles being that fruit in this case.

End Quote:
Kings excerpt:

“The Gentiles were not reconciled “in the body of Christ’s flesh” but in the body of His flesh “through death,” which means that they were reconciled (or were being reconciled, 2 Cor.5:20) in the risen body that derives from the death of “the body of his flesh.” From that perspective Paul said, “Ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ.” Both Jew and Gentile believers were dead to the law through their Baptism in to Christ’s death, THE DIFFERENCE BEING THAT JEWISH CHRISTIANS WERE “DELIVERED” OR “LOOSED” FROM THE LAW OF THEIR HUSBAND IN HIS CHRIST-DETERMINED DEATH, WHEREAS THE GENTILES WERE NOT LOOSED, SET FREE OR DELIVERED FROM THE LAW, HAVING NEVER BEEN MARRIED TO THE HUSBAND OF THIS LAW. Instead they were dead to the law in the sense that through Christ’s death THEY WERE ESPOUSED NOT TO THE MAN OF THE OLD AEON but to the one New Man of Christ’s resurrection. In this connection Paul wrote to Gentiles at Corinth, “for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ” (2 Cor. 11:2). (emphasis mine)

End Quote:
Quote from pate 709:

“ It is equally clear that the death of the husband is determined by the death of Christ. That, then, which answers to the husband from a corporate perspective is the “body of flesh.” This is the thrust of Paul’s statement, “For when we were in the flesh …” (v.5). From this viewpoint the death of the body of Christ’s flesh (Col.1:22) HAD THE MEANING OF THE DEATH OF ISRAEL’S CORPORATE BODY ACCORDING TO THE FLESH.

In that connection Paul said that, “our old man” (THE CORPORATE OLD MAN THAT STANDS IN CONTRAST TO CORPORATE NEW MAN) “is crucified with him (Christ), THAT THE BODY OF SIN MIGHT BE DESTROYED …” (6:6).

IT IS THE DEATH OF THE CORPORATE MAN “according to the flesh” that RELEASES ISRAEL FROM THE LAW OF THIS MAN according to the Spirit. The law of this Man is “the law of the Spirit of life” in contrast to “the law of sin and death” (Rom. 8.2).”

End quote.


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