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Romans 11 All Israel Saved in AD 70

TThere is much debate among futurist eschatologies when it comes to when and how "all Israel" is to be saved in Romans 11. The imminence within Romans itself and the NT demads that she was saved spiritually at Christ's parousia.Michael Sullivan https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vXjIDSb8YRc

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Comment by Internet_Troll on August 30, 2016 at 12:27pm

This is one portion of scripture I still struggle with in my preterism and I'm so glad you brought it up.

The way I have understood the preterist interpretation of the verse, is that "all Israel" for the living Jews at that time is basically the elect Jews i.e. the believing Jews. I stand to be corrected.

The challenge I have with this portion of scripture is in limiting "all Israel" to the remnant especially from verse 25

As far as I understand the discussion in the epistle, the Gentiles were now boasting over Israel because they (Gentiles) had accepted Christ while the vast majority of ethnic Israel had not. Thus it seemed as if God's promises to Israel were for all practical purposes falling to the ground i.e. He promised ethnic Israel salvation but by and large the natural race failed to receive it.

I find Paul's answer being 1) not all Israel is Israel i.e. there are elect Jews to whom the promise pertained (opposed to all ethnic Israel being entitled to the promise). And those elect Jews were the ones obeying the gospel. Thus God's promise was being fulfilled to those whom He had actually given the promise.

2) the vast majority of Israel would eventually be saved. And this is the point I need help with.

I find Paul saying the vast majority of Israel would be saved based on these statements of his:

Rom 11:11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all!

Surely Paul was not referring to the elect, since they had obtained salvation. Thus it would be the vast majority of Jews who would have stumbled but then Paul says this was not to be beyond recovery. When then did the vast majority of Jews recover from their stumbling?

Rom 11:12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!

Again, it is not the elect that had the transgression, when then was "their inclusion"?

Rom 11:30 Just as you who were at one time disobedient to God have now received mercy as a result of their disobedience, 31 so they too have now become disobedient in order that they too may now receive mercy as a result of God’s mercy to you.

When did the vast majority of Israel they receive this mercy?

While I kinda understand the broad explanation of how the salvation was fulfilled in AD70, I don't understand how the recovery (vs 11) and the obtaining of mercy (vs 31) materialised.

Comment by John on August 30, 2016 at 1:01pm

Boy R Dee,

I would clink on the link and ask the author,Michael Sullivan one of the co-authors of "House Divided".

Comment by Internet_Troll on September 28, 2016 at 11:18am

Hi John

I clicked the link, sent an email but no response. Are you in touch with the author? Don't know what else to do.

Thanks

Comment by John on October 1, 2016 at 9:50pm

Hey Boyardee,

I haven't been in touch with Mike in a while but will try and see if we can't get him or maybe,some other smart folks will chime in to comment on the video.If not,we'll have to figure it for ourselves :)

Best

John

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